Prolegomena
Preface
1) sad state of metaphysics vs. science. No sign of advancement.
2) Apology for Hume who has shown that the causal relation (A posited
B necessarily follows) is not a child of reason, (i.e., knowable on the
basis of conceptual analysis) but it is a "bastard of the imagination impregnated
by experience."
How H. awakened K. from his "dogmatic slumber."
Preamble
1) Analytic vs. synthetic judgment:
Explicative (analysis of concepts) vs. ampliative (ex. All bodies are
extended, vs. some bodies have weight).
2) A-priori vs. a-posteriori judgments:
Justifiable without reference to experience vs. need experiential justification
(ex. 2+2=4 vs. Regan was president).
3) Grid:
Analytic
Synthetic
A-priori
Yes
??
A-posteriori
No
Yes
4) Maths is
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a priori: Math judgments are a-priori because we know them to be universal
and necessary, which they couldn't be if they were justified from experience.
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synthethic: although some principles used in maths (the whole greater than
the part) are analytic, proper math judgments are synthetic because
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4=2+2; the concept of 4 doesn't include those of 2 and +.
NOTE: Leibniz's or Frege's reaction.
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"the straight line between two points is the shortest"; the concept of
straight is qualitative, not quantitative and so can't include it.
5) Metaphysics is synthetic a priori, e.g., "substance is permanent."
However, some metaphysical statements are analytic , e.g., "substance is
always a subject."
6) Is Metaphysics possible as a science?
NOTE: ultimately, the answer is 'no'
In the Critique the issue is treated synthetically, i.e., from
considerations of the very nature of reason
In the Prolegomena the issue is treated analytically. We know
two synthetic a priori disciplines:
i) pure maths
ii) pure physics
If by using a transcendental argument we find out what the only
conditions which make them possible are, then we can see whether these
conditions can possibly apply to metaphysics.
7)Intuition vs. concept.
Concept:
-
it is a general representation, i.e. a representation of what is common
to several things. It turns out to be a rule of the understanding for holding
several representations in a unity; e.g. to think of a body is to think
of extension, impenetrability etc. together.
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it refers to object mediately, through their marks.
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to apply a concept is actively to conceive of something as falling under
it, i.e., to form a judgment.
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to conceptualize is to be active.
Intuition:
-
It is a singular representation
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it refers to objects immediately by exhibiting them in sensibility.
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to intuit is to be passive, i.e., receptive.
First Part
1) Since geometry is synthetic, it must have recourse to intuition:
a) exhibition of figures (ex. 180 degree
and triangle)
b) proofs by congruence
c) possibility of indefinite extension
of lines.
d) tridimensionality of space.
Space provides both the medium and the constraint for geometrical construction.
In other words, not merely the laws of logic, but the nature of spatiality
(a brute given of human sensibility) determine geometry and what objects
are geometrically, and not merely logically, possible.
NOTE: non-Euclidean geometry shows that geometry is not analytic, in
the sense that the notion of triangle is not sufficient to generate
the property that its internal angles amount to two right angles: one needs
extra assumptions
2) Since geometry is a-priori, the intuition must be pure (a
priori). Space is a pure intuition in the sense that spatiality provides
the framework in which things are intuited. In other words, space is a
form of intuition, and as such a transcendental condition for empirical
intuition.
NOTE: An analogous story holds for Arithmetic and time.
3) Space/time as the transcendental conditions of empirical intuition.
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The colored glasses example and its inadequacy (space/time couldn't be
a feature of things in themselves and be forms of sensibility, since as
forms of sensibility they belong to things only qua intuited, and
therefore cannot belong to them independently of being intuited).
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Because space/time are the transcendental conditions of empirical intuition,
we perceive appearances (transcendental idealism). Things in themselves
are not in space/time; however, as given in experience, they are,
that is, theyy appear to us in space/ti.me
Space and time are transcendentally ideal and empirically
real.
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Ideal: mind-dependent
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Real: mind-independent.
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Transcendantal: X is transcendentally so and so if X is so and so at the
level of philosophical reflection.
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Empirical: X is empirically so and so if X is so and so at the level of
ordinary or scientific reflection.
SO:
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Empirically real: what belongs to the intersubjective realm of human experience,
e.g, space/time, appearances in the transcendental sense, i.e., "things"
in the empirical sense ,e.g. tables, chairs, planets etc.
-
Empirically ideal: private data of individual human minds, i.e., appearances
in the empirical sense, e.g., my thought of the table, your idea of Saturn
etc.
-
Transcendentally real: what is referred to independently of sensible conditions
(space/time), i.e, "things" in the transcendental sense (things in themselves,
noumena).
-
Transcendentally ideal: a-priori conditions of human experience (space/time).
4) Incongruous counterparts (the gloves):
a) Relational theory of space (Leibniz)
b) absolutist theory of space (Newton)
c) How K's argument, if it proves anything,
works only against (a).
5) since geometry is based on space, the form of intuition, it must
hold of anything which is perceived in space, i.e., it must hold of all
outer appearances.
If we perceived not appearances, but things in themselves, we couldn't
be sure that they must obey the laws of (Euclidean) geometry.
Problem:
K. proves too much: Gauss and non-Euclidean geometries.
6) distinction between critical (transcendental), empirical, and mystical
idealism:
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critical idealism (Kant) does not deny that things in themselves
exist independently of us. It merely claims that we know them only
as they appear to us, i.e., through the lenses of space/time.
-
empirical idealism (Descartes) claims that appearances in the transcendental
sense (tables, chairs etc., i.e., what K would consider things in space/time)
are things in temselves, i.e. takes what's empirically real as transcendentally
real.
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mystical idealism (Berkeley) claims that appearances in the empirical
sense (private ideas) are things in the transcendental sense.
Second Part (with part of TD as in B, Second Analogy and
Refutation of Idealism from Critique)
1) The categories:
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Quantity, Quality, Relation (sbstance, cause, community), Modality
Problem: issues of the validity of the list.
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the most basic concepts of the understanding obtained by analyzing types
of judgment.
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a-priori.
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the need of a transcendental deduction (TD) in order to prove that the
categories are justifiably employed with respect to intuition. (quaestio
facti vs. quaestio juris). Hence, TD provides a link between
intuition and understanding.
2) The Transcendental Deduction (sects. 15-17; 19-20 only).
Here deal only with the attempt to show the categories have objective
validity, i.e. are the transcendental conditions for the representation
of objects.
NOTES:
-
we leave out the issue of objective reality, i.e, that empirical intuitions
do fit the categories
-
Space/time (the sensible conditions of experience) don't need a transcendetal
deduction; the categories (the intellectual conditions of experience) do.
sec. 15: sensibility presents us with a manifold of representations, a
"manyness"; their combination (synthesis) due to the understanding.
It is this combination that constitutes experience (sensibility alone does
not give the representation of any object).
sec 16: introduces the basic notion of transcendental unity of apperception
(TUA), the "I think."
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it is analytically true, i.e., it is logically necessary, that it be possible
for the "I think" to accompany all the representations of the subject.
Note: the claim affirms the necessity of a possibility,i.e., it is
not necessary that the subject be reflectively aware of all her representations,
only that it be possible for her to be aware of them.
-
the representation of a manifold as a manifold requires a single complex
thought. Representing the manifold A, B, C, requires a single thought of
A, B, C: just having a thought of A, a thought of B, and one of C won't
do it.
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the representation of a single complex thought requires a single thinking
subject: a set of distinct thoughts of the elements of a whole cannot be
equivalent to the thought of the whole itelf (Example: different people
saying "what a nice day").
Note: traditional unity of consciousness (e.g. Descartes and Clarke);
however, TUA is not empirical consciousness
-
but a single thinking subject can represent a manifold as a manifold (i.e.,
have a single complex thought) only if it is possible for her to become
aware of her identity with the subjects thinking each component representation
of the manifold. For example, if the manifold contains representations
A and B and the complex thought of the manifold is C, then it must be possible
for the subject thinking C to be aware of her identity with the subject
thinking A and with the subject thinking B.
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however, in the Treatise Hume has shown that inner sense does
not provide a representation of the thinking subject.
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Hence, the subject thinking C can be aware of her identity with the subject
thinking A and with the subject thinking B only by combining A and B in
one single consciousness and being aware of being the subject who's doing
the combining. That is, the consciousness that A and B are representations
for the subject presupposes the subject's awareness of thinking them together
as C.
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In sum, the identity of apperception of a manifold contains a synthesis
of representations and is possible only through the consciousness of that
synthesis. Roughly put, we can represent manifolds (i.e., attach
the "I think" to representations of manifolds) only if we consciously join
together their component representations.
sec. 17: attempts to link TUA with the transcendental notion of an object.
For K. an object is "that in the concept of which the manifold of a given
intuition is united" (B 137).
NOTE: K. defines an object on the basis of the conditions that must
be satisfied for it to be an object for the subject.
So, anything represented by means of unifying a manifold of intuition
under a concept counts as an object. But TUA can only be obtained by the
synthetic activity of the understanding, i.e., by uniting representations
under a concept. Hence, TUA (the transcendental condition for thought)
is a sufficient condition for the representation of objects (can't have
the former and not the latter).
sec 19: links the activity of judgment to that of transcendental synthesis.
A judgment is the assertion of a unity of representations by means of the
copula "is" (example: "This is a dog").
But the unity brought about by judgment and that brought about by transcendental
synthesis are one and the same.
Problem: Why should it be so?
So, the unification of the intuitive manifold under a concept, i.e.,
the representation of an object, is an act of judgment.
sec. 20: draws the conclusion that since judgments are subject to the
categories, and the transcendental synthesis of the intuitive manifold
is an act of judgment, the intuitive manifold must be subject to the categories.
3. The Analytic of Principles: Second Analogy .
Prelimaries:
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Tries to prove the every-event-some-cause principle (vs. Hume in the Treatise),
not the same-cause-same-effect principle (vs. Hume in the Enquiry).
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An event is the becoming of something, i.e. the succession of states of
an object (example: water freezing and turning solid; Joe going out and
slipping on banana peel).
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Subjective vs. objective succession, i.e., succession of representations
vs. representation of succession (example: house vs. ship).
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A causal link is a universal and necessary (exceptionless) rule according
to which one thing follows another.
The argument tries to show that the application of the category (actually,
the schema) of causality is a transcendental condition for the experience
of objective succession.
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All event perception requires successive perceptions of an object, otherwise
one could not contrast the new state with the old one.
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But the successive perceptions of an object are merely a necessary, not
a sufficient condition for the experience of an event (example: house/ship).
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The sufficient condition for experiencing an event is that the perceptions
be thought of as being in an irreversible order. Only thus can one distinguish
the experience of a succession from a succession of experiences.
For example, house-perceptions coneptualized as reversible (e.g. perception
of roof before or after that of windows); but ship-perceptions coneptualized
as irreversible.
NOTE: this does not mean that the representations are perceived
in that order, only that they are conceptualized in that
order. I conceive the ship as being at A before B, but I may perceive
it at B (see the smoke) beofre I perceive it at A (hear the whistle).
Perceptions don't constitute experience of events without being conceptualized.
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The irreversibility of the order of perceptions can be conceptualized only
by the application of an a-priori rule, which in this case is the category
of causality (actually, the schema of causality). The idea here is
that an empirical concept would not guarantee irreversibility.
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Since the category (actually the schema) of causality is a precondition
for the possibility of experiencing events, it is also the precondition
for the existence of events as objects of possible experience.
Problem:
What kind of connection has to hold between a state B and its perceptual
antecedent A, where the sequance A-B constitutes an event?
Two possibilities:
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The connection between A and B is law-like.
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The connection between A and B is totally accidental.
K. seems bound to claim (1) but if so, he's wrong. We recognize as objective
some successions which are not causal and not law-like (example: man leaving
home at t1 and being hit by a brick at t2).
Reply:
Nothing prevents K from accepting (2). There must be some causal condition
determining the passage from A to B, but A needn't be the cause of B, nor
need the link between A and B be law-like. The sequence A-B is conceived
as irreversible because there must be some causes which determine the transition
from A to B, e.g. a cause for the man being at such a place, and a cause
for the brick falling there. Conceiving A-B as irreversible (i.e
as an event) entails the application of the category of causality, but
not to A-B directly.
Does K answer Hume?
Possible reply:
H. must distinguish between a mere subjective sequence of perceptions
and an objective sequence of perceptions because his theory of habit grounding
his views of causality presuppose such a distinction. But, if K. is right,
this distinction presupposes causality.
Problem: why must H. distinguish between subjective and objective
succession? The fact that the representations generating the mind
are in an individual mind does not entail that they don't constitute an
objective succession.
4. The Refutation of Idealism
Distinction between
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Dogmatic Idealism as in Berkeley: the notion of outer (i.e., material)
object is incoherent. Hence, material objects don't exist
NOTE: For K. this a version of idealism has been rejected by
showing that space is the form of outer intuition.
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Problematic Idealism, e.g. Descartes in Meditation 1: no direct evidence
that outer objects exist.
The argument is about problematic idealism, and consequently it attempts
to establish that some of the objects outer representations depict must
be empirically real, i.e., real in the ordinary sense of the word.
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I am conscious of my existence in time, i.e., I have experience, i.e.,
am aware of the succession of representations.
NOTE: the idea, here, is that even Descartes in the First Meditation
would have to admit this.
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Since I don't perceive time itself, in order to determine the temporal
relation of these representations there must be "something permanent
in perception," otherwise I could not become aware of their succession
in a common time (I couldn't order them).
NOTE: this is, in effect, the point of the First Analogy
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I don't have any intuition of my particular empirical self (Hume's point)
NOTE: the idea here is that one might claim that the self could constitute
what's permanent in perception.
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All the representations in inner experience are fleeting (Hume's point)
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I can't have any intuition of the unity of apperception because the unity
of apperception is not an intuition but an intellectual representation
and as such not an item of inner experience.
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Hence, no object or representation of inner experience provides the "permanent
in perception" required.
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Hence, the "permanent in perception" must be found in the actual dyachronic
existence of represented objects of outer sense
NOTE: K. is careful in pointing out that he's talking about the existence
of outer things, and not merely about that of their representations.
Problems:
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(2) is questionable: to determine temporal relations, all is needed is
regularity (e.g. regular motion or regular flashes of light) not permanence
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the transition from (6) to (7), the heart of the argument, is unclear.
From the fact that no object or representation of inner experience can
provide the "permanent in perception" it merely follows that is must be
in outer experience, be it in mere representations of outer objects or
in outer objects themselves. On what grounds does K. rule out the
former?
Possible replies:
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Inner experience and outer experience are heterogeneous in that inner experience
cannot provide the material for outer experience (in Lockean terms, reflection
cannot provide the material for sensation)
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It cannot be in mere representations of outer objects because these are
as constantly changing as those of inner experience, and can be reidentified
only on the assumption that they refer to permanent outer objects.
Third Part (sections)
1) The only type of metaphysics possible as a science is that given
in the Aestetics and the Analytic, i.e., a study of the transcendental
conditions of experience, i.e., a Metaphysics of Experience.
NOTE: the point made in the Solution to the general question.
Now K. passes to study the fallacious part of metaphysics.
2) Distinction between
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concepts (can be given in experience)
Ex. application of the notion of causality to every event in the world.
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ideas (go beyond possible experience by being applied to the totality of
possible experience taken as a whole).
Ex. application of the notion of causality to the world as a whole
in saying, say, that God is the cause of the world.
When thus applied, concepts become transcendent and the alleged knowledge
gained from them illusory: Intuitions without concepts are blind; concepts
without intuitions are empty.
NOTE: Contrast transcendent and transcendental.
Ideas can be grouped under three labels: Psychological ideas, Cosmological
ideas, Theological ideas (we do only a part of the second)
3)The cosmological ideas (the antinomies).
A)
The antinomies are an example of the sort of trouble reason falls into
when passing beyond the limits of possible experience.
An antinomy is a pair of apparently contradictory propositions which
follow from the same assumptions.
An antinomy is solved by:
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showing that the apparently contradictory propositions follow from a set
of assumptions which is internally inconsistent
Ex. A round square is round; a round square is not round: In this case
the two propositions are contraries (and both false), not contradictories
(of which one must be true)
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showing that the propositions in question are merely apparently contradictory.
Ex. "The end of life is death" (end as terminus) vs. "The end of life
is not death" (end as goal): Here one sees that the two propositions do
not talk about the same thing.
B)
The four antinomies:
1) The world has a beginning in time and is limited in space
vs. the world is infinite in time and in extension
2) every composite substance is made up of simples vs. every
substance is made up of other substances, themselves made up of other substances,
to infinity
3) There are causes through freedom vs. there's no freedom but
all is causally determined
4) there is a necessary being in the world or as a cause of
it vs. there is no necessary being
NOTE: K insists that the proofs given for the thesis and antithesis
are correct, but there is much doubt about this.
The solution (we do just (1) and (3))
(1):
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Spatio-temporal objects exist only in experience (noumena are not in space/time)
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But the world as a whole, i.e. as one object, is not an object of possible
experience
NOTE: the idea here seems to be that the alleged "facts" of the infinitude/finitude
of the world are not empirically accessible
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Hence, the very notion of attempting to find the spatio/temporal determinations
of the world is inconsistent.
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So, the antinomy stems from an inconsistent notion, that of the world as
a whole as an empirical object, i.e., as an object of possible experience.
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Hence, the two horns of the antinomy are both false.
(3):
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Universal causation applies to persons viewed as phenomena; freedom to
persons viewed as noumena. But I, as a noumenon, am a principle of
action which acts uncaused (agent causation a la Clarke), while I, as a
phenomenon, am subject to universal causation.
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Hence, the two horns of the antinomy are both true, but they apply to different
areas
NOTE: Implicit rejection of compatibilism, vs. Lk. and Hume.
Problem: how does the noumenon affect the phenomena (i.e., actions)?